Certified Associate In Project Management (CAPM)
TestPrep Academy
Exam: CAPM
Question: 1 / 55
90:00
Which Process Group is the Perform Quality Assurance process performed as part of?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing
Enterprise environmental factors are used as inputs to the Develop Project Charter process. Which options are enterprise environmental factors? Choose 3.
A. Organization infrastructure
B. Lessons learned
C. Governmental standards
D. Marketplace conditions
What is used during the Determine Budget process to ensure planned expenditures do not exceed the amount of funds that are committed to the project at any point in time?
A. Funding limit reconciliation
B. Reserve analysis
C. Historical information review
D. Cost aggregation
Identify the project type that would benefit most from detailed cost estimation methods in agile/adaptive environments.
A. A project in which the scope is not completely defined
B. A project with a short-term planning range
C. A project with a high level of uncertainty
D. A project in which the labor cost estimation can be easily adjusted, if needed
During which Process Group are the most project funds typically spent?
A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Planning
Which of the following items represent inputs to the Close Project or Phase process? Choose 3.
A. Organizational process assets
B. Project management plan
C. Accepted deliverables
D. Enterprise environmental factors
What is the main output of the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?
A. Risk management plan
B. Project management plan updates
C. Project documents updates
D. Risk register
Which output of the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process would include updates to the lessons learned register?
A. Project documents updates
B. Enterprise environmental factors updates
C. Organizational process assets updates
D. Project management plan updates
Which statement provides the
BEST
example of work performance data?
A. Actual costs incurred
B. Resource availability
C. The status of change requests
D. Estimate to complete forecasts
Which process enables the allocation of clear responsibilities for each work unit that is required by the project?
A. Define Activities
B. Develop Schedule
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Create WBS
The project manager has identified a risk. The likelihood that that the risk will occur is 25%. The impact the risk will have on the project is -$15,000. What is the value calculated for risk?
A. -$375,000
B. -$37,500
C. -$3,750
D. $3,750
Identify the project manager's role in project integration management.
A. Ensure that the original project integration management processes are applied to the project's life cycle
B. Accept full responsibility for the project
C. Ensure business operations run swiftly
D. Request authorization to use organizational resources in project tasks
Which of the following refers to a delay between project activities?
A. Buffer
B. Backlog
C. Lead
D. Lag
Which is an attribute of the project manager in project procurement management?
A. The project manager should be a specialist in procurement management laws
B. The project manager is authorized to sign legally binding agreements
C. The project manager should be able to make informed decisions about contracts and contractual relationships
D. The project manager should assess how culture influences the way contracts are administered when working locally
Which of the following is
NOT
an input when creating the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?
A. Scope baseline
B. Project files from previous projects
C. Project management plan
D. Industry-specific standards
Identify the inputs of the Identify Stakeholder process. Choose 3.
A. Project documents
B. Project charter
C. Organizational process assets
D. Bid documents
E. Milestone list
What is used to determine the project documents that are subject to change control?
A. Expert judgment
B. Industry standards
C. Requirements management plan
D. Scope management plan
What is interactive communication an example of as part of Project Communications Management?
A. A communication technology
B. A communication constraint
C. A communication model
D. A communication method
Which process in the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group contains the activities used to ensure that completed deliverables are formally accepted?
A. Validate Scope
B. Control Communications
C. Control Procurements
D. Monitor and Control Project Work
What is used during the Plan Cost Management process to consider strategies for project funding?
A. Data analysis
B. Funding limit reconciliation
C. Expert judgment
D. Meetings
Which input to the Control Scope process contains the information that actual results are compared to when determining if a change is required?
A. Project management plan
B. Requirements traceability matrix
C. Requirements documentation
D. Work performance data
At what point while performing the processes that make up the Initiating Process Group is a project considered to be officially authorized?
A. When the project scope is defined
B. When the project charter is approved
C. When the business case is assessed
D. When project funding is obtained
Which tool or technique of the Plan Procurement Management process involves gathering and organizing data about product requirements and evaluating them against available alternatives?
A. Bidder conferences
B. Audits
C. Make-or-buy analysis
D. Proposal evaluation
Identify the outputs of the Conduct Procurements process. Choose 3.
A. Change requests
B. Procurement documents
C. Agreements
D. Advertising
E. Selected sellers
Which organizational structure contains full-time project managers with moderate authority, and includes full-time project administrative staff?
A. Strong matrix
B. Balanced matrix
C. Weak matrix
D. Projectized
What is an output of the Acquire Project Team process and is used to stipulate when people are allocated to the project team?
A. Resource calendars
B. Human resource management plan
C. Project staff assignments
D. Project management plan updates
Which technique is used by the Control Scope process?
A. Resource optimization
B. Alternative analysis
C. Variance analysis
D. Reserve analysis
Which technique is used by the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process and makes use of probability distributions?
A. Representation of uncertainties
B. Risk data quality assessment
C. Risk categorization
D. Data analysis techniques
Salience model is an example of which tool or technique of the Identify Stakeholders process?
A. Data representation
B. Expert judgment
C. Stakeholder register
D. Data gathering
During which process are relationships between project tasks identified?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Sequence Activities
C. Develop Schedule
D. Create WBS
Select the option that includes inputs from the Develop Project Charter process.
A. Change requests, project management plan, organizational process assets
B. Cost forecasts, schedule forecasts, work performance information
C. Agreements, business case, project statement of work
D. Business case, enterprise environmental factors, project charter
During which process are forecasts provided to update current schedule information?
A. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
B. Develop Schedule
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Control Communications
The following are key functions or principles of general management in the organization
EXCEPT
:
A. Support of project manager
B. Unity of direction
C. Unity of command
D. Discipline of action
Which statement regarding portfolio management is
TRUE
?
A. High level plans are used to track interdependencies and progress
B. Provides decision-making transparency
C. It is focused on the ongoing production of goods and services
D. Scope is progressively elaborated
Identify the tools and techniques used in the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process. Choose 3.
A. Stakeholder analysis
B. Meetings
C. Expert judgment
D. Data gathering
Which organization type utilizes project managers with full authority for directing project work?
A. Balanced matrix
B. Projectized
C. Functional
D. Weak matrix
How do the top two percent of project managers distinguish themselves from other project managers?
A. Superior forecasting skills
B. Superior planning skills
C. Superior communication skills
D. Superior technical skills
The following are domains of the common governance framework that can be applied to a standalone project, or a project being run as part of a program or portfolio
EXCEPT
:
A. Communications
B. Risk
C. Performance
D. Oversight
Which Process Group is responsible for carrying out the actions required to regulate the progress and performance of the project?
A. Executing
B. Closing
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and Controlling
Which role is most involved with the leadership of the project team?
A. Project manager
B. Sponsor
C. Supplier
D. Customer
Which type of chart should you create to allow people to quickly identify all of the project responsibilities for a particular department?
A. Responsibility assignment matrix
B. Resource breakdown structure
C. Organizational breakdown structure
D. Work breakdown structure
What is an output of the Identify Stakeholders process?
A. Stakeholder engagement plan
B. Organizational process assets
C. Stakeholder register
D. Root cause analysis
Which type of response strategy involves increasing the likelihood of an opportunity occurring by eliminating uncertainty?
A. Exploit
B. Accept
C. Share
D. Transfer
What are characteristics of a project? Choose 3.
A. Unique
B. Repetitive
C. Progressive elaboration
D. Temporary
A project manager determined that it would take two days for an experienced programmer to test the code for an application. However, the experienced programmer has been scheduled to work on another project and is not able to test the code. As a result, a less experienced programmer will have to test the code and will take three days instead. What should you do when estimating activity durations?
A. Update the activity attributes for testing the code
B. Update the activity duration on the schedule
C. Submit a change request to change the activity duration
D. Advise the project sponsor of the situation
Which input provides the project approval requirements that are used in the development of the schedule management plan?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Expert judgment
C. Reporting formats
D. Project charter
A project manager determines that he will need five programmers to test an application's code from Monday to Friday. However, the project manager will only need three programmers from Monday to Friday if one programmer works the weekend. What did the project manager use in this scenario?
A. Data analysis
B. Expert judgement
C. Bottom-up estimating
D. Parametric estimating
You are working on a project that is designing a new order processing system. The project is currently progressing as follows: the earned value is $234,000, the actual cost is $215,000, the planned value is $225,000, and the estimate to complete is $105,000. What is the current schedule performance index for the project?
A. 1.09
B. $9,000
C. $19,000
D. 1.04
Which document contains information about how a given project will be tailored?
A. Project statement of work
B. Agreements
C. Project management plan
D. Activity list
A project manager determines that two days of lead-time can be placed on one of its activities on the project's critical path. What effect can this lead-time have on this project?
A. It can increase the overall project schedule and increase the risk.
B. It can increase the overall project schedule and decrease the risk.
C. It can decrease the overall project schedule and decrease the risk.
D. It can decrease the overall project schedule and increase the risk.
Which tool or technique of the Collect Requirements process is particularly useful when the people that use the product have a difficult time expressing the requirements?
A. Focus groups
B. Observation/conversation
C. Prototypes
D. Questionnaires and surveys
Which of the following are a result of the Close Project or Phase process? Choose 3.
A. Updates to the schedule
B. Transference of historical information to the lessons learned knowledge base
C. Documented reasons for prematurely closing a project in the project closure document
D. Updates to the final product or service
Which output of the Control Procurements process allows the buyer to track when specific deliverables are expected from vendors or if they have been received?
A. Work performance data
B. Resource calendars
C. Work performance information
D. Project documents updates
Which tool or technique directly supports the activities of the CCB?
A. Change control tools
B. Control chart
C. Resource histogram
D. Analytical techniques
Which input of the Control Scope process is used to determine the impact that deviations in the agreed project scope will have on the project objectives?
A. Requirements traceability matrix
B. Work performance data
C. Requirements documentation
D. Project management plan
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